Full question:
My husband and I made wills 2 years prior to our marriage. In those wills we left our entire residuary estate to each other. Both wills are identical in stating that if we do not bequeath anything to our listed children, that the omission is intentional. We then married and did not renew the wills as we felt that they would still apply in the event of our demise. The house we lived in was owned by him and his ex wife Annette. In the divorce, she quit claimed the house to him and subsequently filed for bankruptcy naming the mortgage in same bankruptcy. Now my husband has unexpectedly passed away and his ex wife has notified me that she feels that their daughter in common is entitled to 50% of the house and ALL of my husbands belongings. How much heartache am I going to suffer in court over this, or does the will take precedence and grant me sole ownership of the residence and my husbands clothing, belongings, etc...
- Category: Wills and Estates
- Subcategory: Probate
- Date:
- State: Nevada
Answer:
We are unsure of the basis upon which the ex-wife is claiming a share of the estate. lIf he left a valid will, the property will pass according to the will. If the ex-wife quitclaimed the property to him, it was his to do what he wanted with in his will or by way of joint tenancy with right of survivorship, etc. If he was not the sole owner, and was a tenant in common, rather than a joint tenant with right of survivorship, then he could bequeath his share of the property in a will. If he was joint tenant with right of survivorship, the surviving owner(s) would automatically inherit his share. The liability for the mortgage is entirely separate from the property ownership and should have been assigned in the divorce. We suggest you contact a local attorney who can review all the facts and documents involved.
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